السلام عليكم
I reflected on Chapter 3 (سورة آل عمران) today, and a thought came to me about
آية 59:
إِنَّ مَثَلَ عِيسَى عِندَ اللّهِ كَمَثَلِ آدَمَ خَلَقَهُ مِن تُرَابٍ ثُمَّ قَالَ لَهُ كُن فَيَكُونُ
I pondered why Allah uses the present tense 'to be' يَكُونُ instead of كانَ when he has already used the verb قَالَ rendering that event to be in the past? So, for example why didn't he say كن فكانَ 'Be, and it was'?
My only explanation (since it cannot be a grammatical error) was that the verb يَكُونُ does not only refer to the present, but rather encompasses all three tenses - as and when they take place. So Allah said, 'be and it becomes' regardless of time...
Am I correct in my thinking...has anyone any other ideas?
مع السلامة
I reflected on Chapter 3 (سورة آل عمران) today, and a thought came to me about
آية 59:
إِنَّ مَثَلَ عِيسَى عِندَ اللّهِ كَمَثَلِ آدَمَ خَلَقَهُ مِن تُرَابٍ ثُمَّ قَالَ لَهُ كُن فَيَكُونُ
I pondered why Allah uses the present tense 'to be' يَكُونُ instead of كانَ when he has already used the verb قَالَ rendering that event to be in the past? So, for example why didn't he say كن فكانَ 'Be, and it was'?
My only explanation (since it cannot be a grammatical error) was that the verb يَكُونُ does not only refer to the present, but rather encompasses all three tenses - as and when they take place. So Allah said, 'be and it becomes' regardless of time...
Am I correct in my thinking...has anyone any other ideas?
مع السلامة