لاتَأْكُلِ السَّمَكَ وَتَشْرَبُ اللَّبَنَ
The literal translation would be ‘Do not eat (imperative, M1) the fish and you [are] drink[ing] the milk
لا is the statement of negation followed by the imperative ‘eat’ which is both the verb and has in it the implied subject which is male singular. Also lam has kasrah for the sake of vocative harmony. السَّمَكَ is in the mansoob form as it is the object. و is used as a conjunction which translates to as ‘and’ followed by the verb تَشْرَبُ which is second person singular male ‘you are drinking’ and the subject is اللَّبَنَ therefore in the mansoob form
If we were to look at the sentence so to comprehend the message within it, the literal translation doesn’t really make sense, and I would say و here is used maybe to say ‘because’ as otherwise we cannot really call it a sentence.
Another angle could be that the sentence is half an imperative and half a question, in this case the literal translation would in fact make sense ‘Do not eat the fish and you are drinking the milk?
لاتَأْكُلِ السَّمَكَ وَتَشْرَبِ اللَّبَنَ
The literal translation would be ‘Do not eat the fish and [You, m1] drink the milk.
Again the fist two words are joined to make an imperative as explained above and و is used to express ‘and’ َتَشْرَبِ is an imperative here to say ‘You Drink’ and the Baa has kasrah for the sake of vocative harmony. اللَّبَنَ is the subject once again, so the male is being ordered to drink the milk.
However, I think you can also see it from a slight different angle, my thinking is coming purely based on the intonation, so for example the sentence can be understood as the literal translation ('Do not eat the fish and drink the milk) but also it could be understood as ‘Do not eat the fish and do not drink the milk,’ by changing the tone of the voice.
In English one can say, for example, ‘Do not eat the food and drink the water and mess the house.’ Here ‘and’ is used to continue the use of ‘do not’ the negation is implied within the sentence and can also be implied via intonation.
In the case of Arabic, if what I have said is correct than the use of intonation or implied words will not change the voweling of the sentence.
لاتَأْكُلِ السَّمَكَ وَتَشْرَبَ اللَّبَنَ
Hmm…now this one, I have no idea about. From what we were taught I can only list a few things which will have the last letter as Fat'ha
1.An object in a verbal sentence
2.A dipote in the mansoob and majroor form
3.A past tense verb
4.A demonstrative pronoun
It seems impossible for an imperative to simultaneously be a object....and at this point my thinking confuses me too much to carry on…
Last edited by Nurjahan on Mon Sep 07, 2009 4:40 pm; edited 1 time in total