Correct method of translating a past tense verb

When translating a past tense verb (i.e. wrote) does this mean HE wrote or TO write as they were both underlined or circled in the homework.

translates to HE WROTE. assuming your talking a three letter verb with no changes eg كتب

just a side note here to any one that cares. notice male dominance is shown in the arabic language. did you know that if there were a thousand women and just one man, in the arabic language, you would still have to refer to them as 3+ male. just something for you to think about.

Adding to the above, unlike English where it is perfectly acceptable to say 'to write, to jump, to shout' etc, in Arabic we cannot do this. The verbs are specific to the number and gender. So to say 'he wrote' will be correct but never say 'to write.' You may notice some books translate verbs simmilar to the English style, this does not mean they are correct!

As for the side note; we understand the Arabic is written/spoken so because the male encompasses the female, which is understandable. Surely we don't want to feminise men!

Similar to the English language, in formal works we may say 'he' or 'man' but by no means are we aiming to introduce gender bias. We do so for the sake of convenience.

السلام عليكم

Past tense verbs such as those in reported speech i.e. claimed, expressed, discussed can also relate to inanimate things such as, 'The press release claimed that..' in which case in translation it means 'it claimed' but is still written in the gender of the subject. There is no neutral in Arabic.

Side note: And notice how Islam is beautifully entwined in the Arabic. Allah had awarded custodianship to Man - and what a great responsibility you have ما شاء الله

والسلام