Assalamualikum wa Rahmatullah,
I have a question. I remember in class once we were studying nouns, some of which were feminine by nature i.e بنت and how the ة indicated femininity, we were then told their are some exceptions to the case one of which was خليفة the reason being that in Islam there is no such thing as a female Khalifa.
From this I took it that the language is very specific in what it wants to express one example of this is shown by the verbs and how gender and number specific they are.
When I was going through a very well known Surah in the Quran I realised that we have in the surah the word لَمْ يَلِدْ which means He(m1) does not give birth. So here we have a quality which is generally, nay, ALWAYS attributed to females present in a male singular form. Which indicates the verb would be in the male dual and male plural form?
I'm sorry if I am confusing the issue. My question being why is this? I assumed because Arabic is such a specific language it wouldn't have verbs which are applicable to women only also applicable to men vice versa. So potentially, there are verbs strictly applicable to men which can also be feminised, and verbs strictly applicable to women which can be made masculine? Or would this only happen in the context of poetry and personification?
I have a question. I remember in class once we were studying nouns, some of which were feminine by nature i.e بنت and how the ة indicated femininity, we were then told their are some exceptions to the case one of which was خليفة the reason being that in Islam there is no such thing as a female Khalifa.
From this I took it that the language is very specific in what it wants to express one example of this is shown by the verbs and how gender and number specific they are.
When I was going through a very well known Surah in the Quran I realised that we have in the surah the word لَمْ يَلِدْ which means He(m1) does not give birth. So here we have a quality which is generally, nay, ALWAYS attributed to females present in a male singular form. Which indicates the verb would be in the male dual and male plural form?
I'm sorry if I am confusing the issue. My question being why is this? I assumed because Arabic is such a specific language it wouldn't have verbs which are applicable to women only also applicable to men vice versa. So potentially, there are verbs strictly applicable to men which can also be feminised, and verbs strictly applicable to women which can be made masculine? Or would this only happen in the context of poetry and personification?